Really stupid question, but I never actually considered it and wanted confirmation: are wash sales triggered by individual share purchase prices or overall cost basis?
For example, I bought a share at $3, a share at $4, and a share at $5 for a $4 cost basis. I then sold all 3 shares at $4.50, and then immediately bought back in. I technically made an overall profit, but would this trigger a wash sale because of the share I bought at $5? Thanks for any help.
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