Is this valuation methodology flawed?

1. Build out an operating model to project out EBITDA for next 5 years
2. Take year 5 projected EBITDA and discount it using WACC and discount periods
3. Use an EV/EBITDA multiple and multiply discounted EBITDA to arrive at EV
4. Add cash, subtract debt, and subtract minority interest, to arrive at equity value.
5. Divide by fully diluted shares outstanding to arrive at implied share price.

Does this all make logical sense? Sorry if this a dumb post lol I’m a student in an investment club and I’m just trying to find an alternate to building out a whole DCF.