I have a pretty important question concerning float ownership.

So there's this stock I like that I've been doing all kinds of research on and I noticed something pretty particular.

I wouldn't be asking here if I could have found a answer online and no one in my proximity is knowledgable enough to give me an answer.

Other subreddits have turned into quite the echo chamber where real questions don't get real answers. I'm turning to you guys so I hopefully get serious answers.

Now with the question.

This stock has a institutional ownership of 34.51%, 0.27% insider ownership and a retail ownership of over 90% of the available float. (I know you probably know which stock I'm talking about, please don't hate or anything, I'm just a curious investor)

How can retail ownership plus institutional ownership be over the float by 24.51%? Are shares being held in a margin account getting counted as both? As in the broker actually owns the share but it's technically still the investors share so it counts for both?

I cannot wrap my head around this and I've been looking for an answer for quite a while.

I'm not going to mention the ticker in fear of this post getting removed but checking my profile will clear it up. I don't want to promote anything, you guys already know about it. Just mentioning in case anyone wants to go check the numbers themselves.

Thanks in advance!