I have a question that i feel i have answered myself, and it seems to be common sense, but I’m going to ask anyways.
I own 260 shares of a certain stock, which i have held for over 2 years. I am currently down a lot and have no plans to sell. I recently bought dips and have started selling on run-ups, recouping some money as i hold.
When i sell the shares, I’m assuming it will be “sold” from the shares i have held, allowing it to be taxed at the long term rate?
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