This post will probably be inviting some people here to tell me what a fool I am, and that's ok. What I am after is just clarification so that I can stop wondering about it. I recently sold a stock after a significant loss. Without thinking, I repurchased and sold the stock again with the 30 day window as a swing trade.
Assuming I never buy and hold that stock again, is that loss simply gone for me? I know that if you repurchase the same stock, you can trigger a wash sale but have an advantageous cost basis. What if I simply triggered the wash sale and never come back to the stock?
TIA
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